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Milady (from my lady) is an english term of address to a noble woman. I have been wondering about this little problem for a while now. Even when lady macbeth says: Otherwise, as elliot frisch has suggested, lady is. Yes, milady comes from my lady. Everyone understands that, in the binary, the opposite of 'man' is 'woman',. It is the female form of milord. And take my milk for gall, that would definitely support the literal humorism theory, but i still don't. The plural possessive is ladies'. lady is singular, so if you were referring solely to one woman's shoes, it would be the lady's.

Otherwise, as elliot frisch has suggested, lady is. And take my milk for gall, that would definitely support the literal humorism theory, but i still don't. Yes, milady comes from my lady. Milady (from my lady) is an english term of address to a noble woman. Everyone understands that, in the binary, the opposite of 'man' is 'woman',. It is the female form of milord. I have been wondering about this little problem for a while now. Even when lady macbeth says: The plural possessive is ladies'. lady is singular, so if you were referring solely to one woman's shoes, it would be the lady's.

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Even when lady macbeth says: I have been wondering about this little problem for a while now. Milady (from my lady) is an english term of address to a noble woman. It is the female form of milord. Otherwise, as elliot frisch has suggested, lady is.

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I have been wondering about this little problem for a while now. Everyone understands that, in the binary, the opposite of 'man' is 'woman',. The plural possessive is ladies'. lady is singular, so if you were referring solely to one woman's shoes, it would be the lady's. It is the female form of milord. Even when lady macbeth says:

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Milady (from my lady) is an english term of address to a noble woman. Everyone understands that, in the binary, the opposite of 'man' is 'woman',. Yes, milady comes from my lady. And take my milk for gall, that would definitely support the literal humorism theory, but i still don't.

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Otherwise, as elliot frisch has suggested, lady is. The plural possessive is ladies'. lady is singular, so if you were referring solely to one woman's shoes, it would be the lady's. I have been wondering about this little problem for a while now.